CCNA1 Chapter 4 Exam Answer v5.1 2015

1. What are two reasons for physical layer protocols to use frame encoding techniques? (Choose two.)

   • to reduce the number of collisions on the media
   • to distinguish data bits from control bits
   • to provide better media error correction
   • to identify where the frame starts and ends
   • to increase the media throughput

2. What is indicated by the term throughput?

   • the guaranteed data transfer rate offered by an ISP
   • the capacity of a particular medium to carry data
   • the measure of the usable data transferred across the media
   • the measure of the bits transferred across the media over a given period of time
   • the time it takes for a message to get from sender to receiver

3. A network administrator notices that some newly installed Ethernet cabling is carrying corrupt and distorted data signals. The new cabling was installed in the ceiling close to fluorescent lights and electrical equipment. Which two factors may interfere with the copper cabling and result in signal distortion and data corruption? (Choose two.)

   • EMI
   • crosstalk
   • RFI​
   • signal attenuation
   • extended length of cabling

4. Which characteristic describes crosstalk?

   • the distortion of the network signal from fluorescent lighting
   • the distortion of the transmitted messages from signals carried in adjacent wires
   • the weakening of the network signal over long cable lengths
   • the loss of wireless signal over excessive distance from the access point

5. What technique is used with UTP cable to help protect against signal interference from crosstalk?

   • twisting the wires together into pairs
   • wrapping a foil shield around the wire pairs
   • encasing the cables within a flexible plastic sheath
   • terminating the cable with special grounded connectors

6. Refer to the exhibit. The PC is connected to the console port of the switch. All the other connections are made through FastEthernet links. Which types of UTP cables can be used to connect the devices?​

   

   CCNA1 Chapter 4 v5.1 002
   • 1 – rollover, 2 – crossover, 3 – straight-through
   • 1 – rollover, 2 – straight-through, 3 – crossover
   • 1 – crossover, 2 – straight-through, 3 – rollover
   • 1 – crossover, 2 – rollover, 3 – straight-through

7. Refer to the exhibit. What is wrong with the displayed termination?

   

   CCNA1 Chapter 4 v5.1 003
   • The woven copper braid should not have been removed.
   • The wrong type of connector is being used.
   • The untwisted length of each wire is too long.
   • The wires are too thick for the connector that is used.

8. Which type of connector does a network interface card use?

   • DIN
   • PS-2
   • RJ-11
   • RJ-45

9. What is one advantage of using fiber optic cabling rather than copper cabling?

   • It is usually cheaper than copper cabling.
   • It is able to be installed around sharp bends.
   • It is easier to terminate and install than copper cabling.
   • It is able to carry signals much farther than copper cabling.

10. Why are two strands of fiber used for a single fiber optic connection?

    • The two strands allow the data to travel for longer distances without degrading.
    • They prevent crosstalk from causing interference on the connection.
    • They increase the speed at which the data can travel.
    • They allow for full-duplex connectivity.

11. A network administrator is designing the layout of a new wireless network. Which three areas of concern should be accounted for when building a wireless network? (Choose three.)

    • mobility options
    • security
    • interference
    • coverage area
    • extensive cabling
    • packet collision

12. Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for specifying the encapsulation method used for specific types of media?

    • application
    • transport
    • data link
    • physical

13. What are two services performed by the data link layer of the OSI model? (Choose two.)

    • It encrypts data packets.
    • It determines the path to forward packets.
    • It accepts Layer 3 packets and encapsulates them into frames.
    • It provides media access control and performs error detection.
    • It monitors the Layer 2 communication by building a MAC address table.

14. What is true concerning physical and logical topologies?

    • The logical topology is always the same as the physical topology.
    • Physical topologies are concerned with how a network transfers frames.
    • Physical topologies display the IP addressing scheme of each network.
    • Logical topologies refer to how a network transfers data between devices.

15. Which method of data transfer allows information to be sent and received at the same time?

    • full duplex
    • half duplex
    • multiplex
    • simplex

16. Which statement describes an extended star topology?

    • End devices connect to a central intermediate device, which in turn connects to other central intermediate devices.
    • End devices are connected together by a bus and each bus connects to a central intermediate device.
    • Each end system is connected to its respective neighbor via an intermediate device.
    • All end and intermediate devices are connected in a chain to each other.

17. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement describes the media access control methods that are used by the networks in the exhibit?

    

    CCNA1 Chapter 4 v5.1 001
    • All three networks use CSMA/CA
    • None of the networks require media access control.
    • Network 1 uses CSMA/CD and Network 3 uses CSMA/CA.
    • Network 1 uses CSMA/CA and Network 2 uses CSMA/CD.
    • Network 2 uses CSMA/CA and Network 3 uses CSMA/CD.

18. What is contained in the trailer of a data-link frame?

    • logical address
    • physical address
    • data
    • error detection

19. As data travels on the media in a stream of 1s and 0s how does a receiving node identify the beginning and end of a frame?​

    • The transmitting node inserts start and stop bits into the frame.
    • The transmitting node sends a beacon to notify that a data frame is attached.
    • The receiving node identifies the beginning of a frame by seeing a physical address.
    • The transmitting node sends an out-of-band signal to the receiver about the beginning of the frame.

20. What is the function of the CRC value that is found in the FCS field of a frame?

    • to verify the integrity of the received frame
    • to verify the physical address in the frame
    • to verify the logical address in the frame
    • to compute the checksum header for the data field in the frame

21. Fill in the blank.

    The term     bandwidth         indicates the capacity of a medium to carry data and it is typically measured in kilobits per second (kb/s) or megabits per second (Mb/s).​

22. Fill in the blank.

    What acronym is used to reference the data link sublayer that identifies the network layer protocol encapsulated in the frame?  LLC

23. Match the characteristics to the correct type of fiber. (Not all options are used.)

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      CCNA1 Chapter 4 v5.1 001 Question
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      CCNA1 Chapter 4 v5.1 001 Answer

CCNA1 Chapter 3 Exam Answer v5.1 2015

1. What method can be used by two computers to ensure that packets are not dropped because too much data is being sent too quickly?

   • encapsulation
   • flow control
   • access method
   • response timeout

2. What type of communication will send a message to all devices on a local area network?

   • broadcast
   • multicast
   • unicast
   • allcast

3. What process is used to place one message inside another message for transfer from the source to the destination?

   • access control
   • decoding
   • encapsulation
   • flow control

4. A web client is sending a request for a webpage to a web server. From the perspective of the client, what is the correct order of the protocol stack that is used to prepare the request for transmission?

   • HTTP, IP, TCP, Ethernet
   • HTTP, TCP, IP, Ethernet
   • Ethernet, TCP, IP, HTTP
   • Ethernet, IP, TCP, HTTP

5. Which statement is correct about network protocols?

   • Network protocols define the type of hardware that is used and how it is mounted in racks.
   • They define how messages are exchanged between the source and the destination.
   • They all function in the network access layer of TCP/IP.
   • They are only required for exchange of messages between devices on remote networks.

6. Which statement is true about the TCP/IP and OSI models?​

   • The TCP/IP transport layer and OSI Layer 4 provide similar services and functions.​
   • The TCP/IP network access layer has similar functions to the OSI network layer.​
   • The OSI Layer 7 and the TCP/IP application layer provide identical functions.
   • The first three OSI layers describe general services that are also provided by the TCP/IP internet layer.​

7. What is an advantage of using standards to develop and implement protocols?

   • A particular protocol can only be implemented by one manufacturer.
   • Products from different manufacturers can interoperate successfully.
   • Different manufacturers are free to apply different requirements when implementing a protocol.
   • Standards provide flexibility for manufacturers to create devices that comply with unique requirements.

8. What three application layer protocols are part of the TCP/IP protocol suite? (Choose three.)

   • ARP
   • DHCP
   • DNS
   • FTP
   • NAT
   • PPP

9. What are proprietary protocols?

   • protocols developed by private organizations to operate on any vendor hardware
   • protocols that can be freely used by any organization or vendor
   • protocols developed by organizations who have control over their definition and operation
   • a collection of protocols known as the TCP/IP protocol suite

10. What is an advantage of network devices using open standard protocols?

    • Network communications is confined to data transfers between devices from the same vendor.
    • A client host and a server running different operating systems can successfully exchange data.
    • Internet access can be controlled by a single ISP in each market.
    • Competition and innovation are limited to specific types of products.

11. Refer to the exhibit. If Host1 were to transfer a file to the server, what layers of the TCP/IP model would be used?

    

    CCNA1 Chapter 3 v5.1 002
    • only application and Internet layers
    • only Internet and network access layers
    • only application, Internet, and network access layers
    • application, transport, Internet, and network access layers
    • only application, transport, network, data link, and physical layers
    • application, session, transport, network, data link, and physical layers

12. Which three layers of the OSI model are comparable in function to the application layer of the TCP/IP model? (Choose three.)

    • application
    • presentation
    • session
    • transport
    • data link
    • physical
    • network

13. At which layer of the OSI model would a logical address be encapsulated?

    • physical layer
    • data link layer
    • network layer
    • transport layer

14. Which PDU format is used when bits are received from the network medium by the NIC of a host?

    • file
    • frame
    • packet
    • segment

15. Which PDU is processed when a host computer is de-encapsulating a message at the transport layer of the TCP/IP model?

    • bits
    • frame
    • packet
    • segment

16. Refer to the exhibit. HostA is attempting to contact ServerB. Which two statements correctly describe the addressing that HostA will generate in the process? (Choose two.)

    • A packet with the destination IP address of RouterB.
    • A frame with the destination MAC address of SwitchA.
    • A packet with the destination IP address of RouterA.
    • A frame with the destination MAC address of RouterA.
    • A packet with the destination IP address of ServerB.
    • A frame with the destination MAC address of ServerB.

17. Which address does a NIC use when deciding whether to accept a frame?

    • source IP address
    • source MAC address
    • destination IP address
    • destination MAC address
    • source Ethernet address

18. What will happen if the default gateway address is incorrectly configured on a host?

    • The host cannot communicate with other hosts in the local network.
    • The switch will not forward packets initiated by the host.
    • The host will have to use ARP to determine the correct address of the default gateway.
    • The host cannot communicate with hosts in other networks.
    • A ping from the host to 127.0.0.1 would not be successful.

19. Which characteristic describes the default gateway of a host computer?

    • the logical address of the router interface on the same network as the host computer
    • the physical address of the switch interface connected to the host computer
    • the physical address of the router interface on the same network as the host computer
    • the logical address assigned to the switch interface connected to the router

20. Match each description to its corresponding term. (Not all options are used.)

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      CCNA1 Chapter 3 v5.1 001 Question
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      CCNA1 Chapter 3 v5.1 001 Answer

21. Match the protocol function to the description while taking into consideration that a network client is visiting a web site. (Not all options are used.)

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      CCNA1 Chapter 3 v5.1 003 Question
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      CCNA1 Chapter 3 v5.1 003 Answer

22. Match the description to the organization. (Not all options are used.)

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      CCNA1 Chapter 3 v5.1 002 Question
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CCNA1 Chapter 2 Exam Answer v5.1 2015

1. What is the function of the kernel of an operating software?

   • It provides a user interface that allows users to request a specific task.
   • The kernel links the hardware drivers with the underlying electronics of a computer.
   • It is an application that allows the initial configuration of a Cisco device.
   • The kernel provisions hardware resources to meet software requirements.

2. A network administrator needs to keep the user ID, password, and session contents private when establishing remote CLI connectivity with a switch to manage it. Which access method should be chosen?

   • Telnet
   • Console
   • AUX
   • SSH

3. Which procedure is used to access a Cisco 2960 switch when performing an initial configuration in a secure environment?

   • Use Telnet to remotely access the switch through the network.
   • Use the console port to locally access the switch from a serial or USB interface of the PC.
   • Use Secure Shell to remotely access the switch through the network​.
   • Use the AUX port to locally access the switch from a serial or USB interface of the PC.

4. Which command or key combination allows a user to return to the previous level in the command hierarchy?

   • end
   • exit
   • Ctrl-Z
   • Ctrl-C

5. A router has a valid operating system and a configuration file stored in NVRAM. The configuration file contains an enable secret password but no console password. When the router boots up, which mode will display?

   • global configuration mode
   • setup mode
   • privileged EXEC mode
   • user EXEC mode

6. Which two functions are provided to users by the context-sensitive help feature of the Cisco IOS CLI? (Choose two.)

   • providing an error message when a wrong command is submitted
   • displaying a list of all available commands within the current mode
   • allowing the user to complete the remainder of an abbreviated command with the TAB key
   • determining which option, keyword, or argument is available for the entered command
   • selecting the best command to accomplish a task

7. Which information does the show startup-config command display?​

   • the IOS image copied into RAM
   • the bootstrap program in the ROM
   • the contents of the current running configuration file in the RAM
   • the contents of the saved configuration file in the NVRAM

8. Why is it important to configure a hostname on a device?

   • a Cisco router or switch only begins to operate when its hostname is set
   • a hostname must be configured before any other parameters
   • to identify the device during remote access (SSH or telnet)
   • to allow local access to the device through the console port

9. Which two host names follow the guidelines for naming conventions on Cisco IOS devices? (Choose two.)

   • Branch2!
   • RM-3-Switch-2A4
   • Floor(15)
   • HO Floor 17
   • SwBranch799

10. How does the service password-encryption command enhance password security on Cisco routers and switches?

    • It encrypts passwords as they are sent across the network.
    • It encrypts passwords that are stored in router or switch configuration files.
    • It requires that a user type encrypted passwords to gain console access to a router or switch.
    • It requires encrypted passwords to be used when connecting remotely to a router or switch with Telnet.

11. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring the MOTD on switch SW1. What is the purpose of this command?

    

    CCNA1 Chapter 2 v5.1 001
    • to display a message when a user accesses the switch
    • to configure switch SW1 so that only the users in the Admin group can telnet into SW1
    • to force users of the Admin group to enter a password for authentication
    • to configure switch SW1 so that the message will display when a user enters the enable command

12. While trying to solve a network issue, a technician made multiple changes to the current router configuration file. The changes did not solve the problem and were not saved. What action can the technician take to discard the changes and work with the file in NVRAM?

    • Issue the reload command without saving the running configuration.
    • Delete the vlan.dat file and reboot the device.
    • Close and reopen the terminal emulation software.
    • Issue the copy startup-config running-config command.

13. Which statement is true about the running configuration file in a Cisco IOS device?

    • It affects the operation of the device immediately when modified.
    • It is stored in NVRAM.
    • It should be deleted using the erase running-config command.
    • It is automatically saved when the router reboots.

14. What are two characteristics of RAM on a Cisco device? (Choose two.)

    • RAM provides nonvolatile storage.
    • The configuration that is actively running on the device is stored in RAM.
    • The contents of RAM are lost during a power cycle. 
    • RAM is a component in Cisco switches but not in Cisco routers.
    • RAM is able to store multiple versions of IOS and configuration files.

15. Which interface allows remote management of a Layer 2 switch?

    • the AUX interface
    • the console port interface
    • the switch virtual interface
    • the first Ethernet port interface

16. Which interface is the default SVI on a Cisco switch?

    • FastEthernet 0/1
    • GigabitEthernet 0/1
    • VLAN 1
    • VLAN 99

17. Why would a Layer 2 switch need an IP address?

    • to enable the switch to send broadcast frames to attached PCs
    • to enable the switch to function as a default gateway
    • to enable the switch to be managed remotely
    • to enable the switch to receive frames from attached PCs

18. What command can be used on a Windows PC to see the IP configuration of that computer?

    • ping
    • ipconfig
    • show interfaces
    • show ip interface brief

19. A technician is adding a new PC to a LAN. After unpacking the components and making all the connections, the technician starts the PC. After the OS loads, the technician opens a browser, and verifies that the PC can reach the Internet. Why was the PC able to connect to the network with no additional configuration?

    • The PC does not require any additional information to function on the network.
    • The PC came preconfigured with IP addressing information from the factory.
    • The PC was preconfigured to use DHCP.
    • The PC used DNS to automatically receive IP addressing information from a server.
    • The PC virtual interface is compatible with any network.

20. What is a user trying to determine when issuing a ping 10.1.1.1 command on a PC?

    • if the TCP/IP stack is functioning on the PC without putting traffic on the wire
    • if there is connectivity with the destination device
    • the path that traffic will take to reach the destination
    • what type of device is at the destination

21. Refer to the exhibit. A network technician is testing connectivity in a new network. Based on the test results shown in the exhibit, which device does the technician have connectivity with and which device does the technician not have connectivity with? (Choose two.)

    

    CCNA1 Chapter 2 v5.1 002
    • connectivity: switch 2
    • connectivity: PC-D
    • connectivity: PC-B
    • no connectivity: switch 1
    • no connectivity: switch 2
    • no connectivity: PC-C

22. Refer to the exhibit. What three facts can be determined from the viewable output of the show ip interface brief command? (Choose three.)

    

    CCNA1 Chapter 2 v5.1 003
    • Two physical interfaces have been configured.
    • The switch can be remotely managed.
    • One device is attached to a physical interface.
    • Passwords have been configured on the switch.
    • Two devices are attached to the switch.
    • The default SVI has been configured.

23. An administrator is configuring a switch console port with a password. In what order will the administrator travel through the IOS modes of operation in order to reach the mode in which the configuration commands will be entered? (Not all options are used.)

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      CCNA1 Chapter 2 v5.1 001 Question
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      CCNA1 Chapter 2 v5.1 001 Answer

24. Match the definitions to their respective CLI hot keys and shortcuts. (Not all options are used.)

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      CCNA1 Chapter 2 v5.1 002 Question
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      CCNA1 Chapter 2 v5.1 002 Answer

CCNA1 Chapter 1 Exam Answer 2015 (v5.1)

1. A company is contemplating whether to use a client/server or a peer-to-peer network. What are three characteristics of a peer-to-peer network? (Choose three.)

   • better security
   • easy to create
   • better device performance when acting as both client and server
   • lacks centralized administration
   • less cost to implement
   • scalable

2. Which device performs the function of determining the path that messages should take through internetworks?

   • a router
   • a firewall
   • a web server
   • a DSL modem

3. What two criteria are used to help select a network medium from various network media? (Choose two.)

   • the types of data that need to be prioritized
   • the cost of the end devices utilized in the network
   • the distance the selected medium can successfully carry a signal
   • the number of intermediary devices installed in the network
   • the environment where the selected medium is to be installed

4. Which two statements describe intermediary devices? (Choose two.)

   • Intermediary devices generate data content.
   • Intermediary devices alter data content.
   • Intermediary devices direct the path of the data.
   • Intermediary devices connect individual hosts to the network.
   • Intermediary devices initiate the encapsulation process.

5. What are two functions of end devices on a network? (Choose two.)

   • They originate the data that flows through the network.
   • They direct data over alternate paths in the event of link failures.
   • They filter the flow of data to enhance security.
   • They are the interface between humans and the communication network.
   • They provide the channel over which the network message travels.

6. Which area of the network would a college IT staff most likely have to redesign as a direct result of many students bringing their own tablets and smartphones to school to access school resources?

   • extranet
   • intranet
   • wired LAN
   • wireless LAN
   • wireless WAN

7. What type of network must a home user access in order to do online shopping?

   • an intranet
   • the Internet
   • an extranet
   • a local area network

8. An employee at a branch office is creating a quote for a customer. In order to do this, the employee needs to access confidential pricing information from internal servers at the Head Office. What type of network would the employee access?

   • an intranet
   • the Internet
   • an extranet
   • a local area network

9. Which two connection options provide an always-on, high-bandwidth Internet connection to computers in a home office? (Choose two.)

   • cellular
   • DSL
   • satellite
   • cable
   • dial-up telephone

10. Which two Internet connection options do not require that physical cables be run to the building? (Choose two.)

    • DSL
    • cellular
    • satellite
    • dialup
    • dedicated leased line

11. Which term describes the state of a network when the demand on the network resources exceeds the available capacity?

    • convergence
    • congestion
    • optimization
    • synchronization

12. What type of network traffic requires QoS?

    • email
    • on-line purchasing
    • video conferencing
    • wiki

13. Which expression accurately defines the term bandwidth?

    • a method of limiting the impact of a hardware or software failure on the network
    • a measure of the data carrying capacity of the media
    • a state where the demand on the network resources exceeds the available capacity
    • a set of techniques to manage the utilization of network resources

14. A network administrator is implementing a policy that requires strong, complex passwords. Which data protection goal does this policy support?

    • data integrity
    • data quality
    • data confidentiality
    • data redundancy

15. Which statement describes a characteristic of cloud computing?

    • A business can connect directly to the Internet without the use of an ISP.
    • Applications can be accessed over the Internet by individual users or businesses using any device, anywhere in the world.
    • Devices can connect to the Internet through existing electrical wiring.
    • Investment in new infrastructure is required in order to access the cloud.

16. Which statement describes the use of powerline networking technology?

    • New “smart” electrical cabling is used to extend an existing home LAN.
    • A home LAN is installed without the use of physical cabling.
    • A device connects to an existing home LAN using an adapter and an existing electrical outlet.
    • Wireless access points use powerline adapters to distribute data through the home LAN.

17. What security violation would cause the most amount of damage to the life of a home user?

    • denial of service to your email server
    • replication of worms and viruses in your computer
    • capturing of personal data that leads to identity theft
    • spyware that leads to spam emails

18. A user is implementing security on a small office network. Which two actions would provide the minimum security requirements for this network? (Choose two.)

    • implementing a firewall
    • installing a wireless network
    • installing antivirus software
    • implementing an intrusion detection system
    • adding a dedicated intrusion prevention device

19. A           converged         network is capable of delivering voice, video, text, and graphics over the same communication channels.

20. Fill in the blank.

    The acronym      byod       refers to the policy that allows employees to use their personal devices in the business office to access the network and other resources.

21. Match the description to the form of network communication. (Not all options are used.)

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      CCNA1 Chapter 1 v5.1 001 Question
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      CCNA1 Chapter 1 v5.1 001 Answer

22. Match each characteristic to its corresponding Internet connectivity type. (Not all options are used.)

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      CCNA1 Chapter 1 v5.1 002 Question
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      CCNA1 Chapter 1 v5.1 002 Answer

23. Match the definition to the security goal. (Not all options are used.)

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      CCNA1 Chapter 1 v5.1 003 Question
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      CCNA1 Chapter 1 v5.1 003 Answer